
28 May
2012
28 May
'12
7:09 a.m.
Manfred Lotz
My question: Because I cannot think of any counterexample for the last statement I would like to know if I just could omit this from the definition and formulate this as a small theorem.
Or does there exist a counterexample where all conditions of a category hold but there exist two objects A, and B where we have idB . f <> f and/or f .idA <> f?
The successor function is a morphism from the set of natural numbers to itself. This is the "and" case of the "and/or". Greets, Ertugrul -- nightmare = unsafePerformIO (getWrongWife >>= sex) http://ertes.de/