Re: [Haskell-beginners] Why is there no notion of a one-tuple (e.g., a '([])' as opposed to a '[]') in Haskell?

How is a 1-tuple different from a value? If we think of tuple types as product types, then the 1-ary product is a simple type -- and 1-ary tuples of values are simple values. In Python, tuples really are like lists -- to the point of being mapable, iterable, &c. In Haskell, lists and tuples share very little. -- _jsn