Re: [Haskell-beginners] Why is there no notion of a one-tuple (e.g., a '([])' as opposed to a '[]') in Haskell?

G'day all. Quoting Ben Lippmeier :

...

Perhaps more crucially, it's hard to see where such a thing would be useful.

IORef, and ML's ref types are sort of one element tuples.

I used to do a fair bit of hash consing myself. I'm definitely sold on references. But they're not quite the same thing as 1-tuples. The fact that you need to go through a monad in Haskell shows why they are different. Cheers, Andrew Bromage