
25 Nov
2015
25 Nov
'15
11:22 a.m.
On Wed, Nov 25, 2015 at 03:48:08PM +0000, MJ Williams wrote:
[snip]
I don't think there is a way to /prove/ f (g a) == g (f a) if their domain is not finite inside Haskell (you could do it with pen and paper). [snip] Just out of interest, could you demonstrate the proof without a finite domain?
Sincerely, Matthew
Say we have: f(x) = x + 1 g(x) = x + 7 Then we can substitute: f(g(x)) f(x+7) (x+7) + 1 x+8 and g(f(x)) g(x+1) (x+1) + 7 x+8 which shows f(g(x)) = g(f(x)) For anything more, my lawyer suggested I say: I have discovered a truly marvellous proof for it, but the margin of this email is to narrow to contain it. :P