
Here, as in general in the definitions of laws, the relevent question is
referential transparency, not Eq instances.
(You'll note that generally in the definitions of laws the symbol "=" is
used, not "==". Sometimes that's written as "≡", to be even clearer about
what it represents, as for instance the Monad Laws page
https://wiki.haskell.org/Monad_laws on the Haskell wiki does.)
For some laws, like the "fmap id = id" Functor law, this is obviously the
only possible interpretation, as both sides of that equation are
necessarily functions, and functions don't have an Eq instance.
So in this case, what the first law is asking for is that "ask >> ask" is
the same as "ask", in that any instance of "ask" in a program can be
replaced with "ask >> ask", or vice versa, without that changing the
program's semantics.
On Sun, Jun 3, 2018 at 9:47 AM Viktor Dukhovni
On Jun 3, 2018, at 3:32 AM, Benjamin Fox
wrote: Here is the counterexample:
instance MonadReader (IORef Int) IO where ask = newIORef 0 local _ = id
This obeys law (1): (newIORef 0 >> newIORef 0) == newIORef 0.
Can you explain what you mean?
Prelude> :m + Data.IORef Prelude Data.IORef> let z = 0 :: Int Prelude Data.IORef> a <- newIORef z Prelude Data.IORef> b <- newIORef z Prelude Data.IORef> let c = newIORef z Prelude Data.IORef> let d = newIORef z Prelude Data.IORef> a == b False Prelude Data.IORef> c == d
<interactive>:8:1: error: • No instance for (Eq (IO (IORef Int))) arising from a use of ‘==’ • In the expression: c == d In an equation for ‘it’: it = c == d
-- Viktor.
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