12 Jul
2007
12 Jul
'07
4:58 p.m.
On Thu, 12 Jul 2007 20:36:47 +0100, you wrote:
How come the set of all sets doesn't exist?
In naive set theory, the existence of the set of all sets leads to a logical paradox. Specifically, the set of all sets would have to contain as a member the set of all sets that are not members of themselves. Look up "Russell's Paradox" in Wikipedia. Steve Schafer Fenestra Technologies Corp. http://www.fenestra.com/