Re: [Haskell-cafe] question regarding the $ apply operator

On Tue, 2011-07-19 at 07:11 +0000, Ivan Lazar Miljenovic wrote:

On 19 July 2011 06:52, Ting Lei wrote:

...

I read somewhere that people a couple of hundreds of years ago can manage to express things using ($)-like notation without any parenthesis at all.

The only thing that I can think of that matches this is Reverse Polish Notation, and according to Wikipedia was about 90 years ago, not hundreds ;-)

I may be wrong but weren't the RPN calculator slightly later then 90 years ago? In any case according to wikipedia RPN was proposed in 1954 so less then 60 years ago. (PN on the other hand was found around 90 years ago). Regards