31 Mar
2008
31 Mar
'08
7:52 a.m.
2008/3/31, Simeon Mattes
why I should take as right
(a,b) <= (a',b') iff (a < a' or (a == a' and b <= b'))
and not
(a,b) <= (a',b') iff (a <= a' or (a == a' and b <= b'))
The latter seems more logical, doesn't it?
No, it doesn't, since in the latter (1,2) <= (1,1) because 1 <= 1
Though I can't understand why both (Branch l r) <= (Branch l' r') = l < l' || l == l' && r <= r' (Branch l r) <= (Branch l' r') = l <= l' || l == l' && r <= r' give the same results
They don't, the second is a mistake, the first is the right one. -- Jedaï