
21 Jun
2007
21 Jun
'07
7:31 p.m.
Peter Padawitz writes:
Is f(~p(x))=e(x) semantically equivalent to: f(z)=e(x) where p(x)=z?
Yep. See also http://en.wikibooks.org/wiki/Haskell/Laziness#Lazy_pattern_matching regarding lazy patterns. -- -David House, dmhouse@gmail.com