
12 Nov
2008
12 Nov
'08
10:11 a.m.
Hi, Is a formal proof that the Haskell language is referentially transparent? Many people state "haskell is RT" without backing up that claim. I know that, in practice, I can't write any counter-examples but that's a bit handy-wavy. Is there a formal proof that, for all possible haskell programs, we can replace coreferent expressions without changing the meaning of a program? (I was writing a blog post about the origins of the phrase 'referentially transparent' and it made me think about this) Andrew -- - http://www.nobugs.org -