
14 Dec
2004
14 Dec
'04
12:16 p.m.
Date: Tue, 14 Dec 2004 10:24:15 -0500 From: Andrew Pimlott
Subject: Re: [Haskell-cafe] The difference between ($) and application On Tue, Dec 14, 2004 at 11:23:24AM +0100, Henning Thielemann wrote:
On Tue, 14 Dec 2004, Andrew Pimlott wrote:
(Of course, it's still useful, by itself or in a slice, as a higher-order operator.)
You can also use 'id' in this cases, right?
I'm thinking of things like
zipWith ($) map ($ x)
You can indeed use zipWith id map (`id` x) instead. Look at the types: id :: a -> a ($) :: (a -> b) -> (a -> b) The function ($) is the identity function, restricted to functions. Nevertheless, I find using ($) in such a situation more descriptive than using id. Cheers, Andres