26 Jun
2007
26 Jun
'07
1:25 p.m.
Hello apfelmus, Tuesday, June 26, 2007, 12:45:54 PM, you wrote:
That works for classical logic where ¬A \/ A always holds, but the task here is to prove it for intuitionistic logic.
is it the same as so-called "woman logic"? :) -- Best regards, Bulat mailto:Bulat.Ziganshin@gmail.com