
24 Apr
2008
24 Apr
'08
3 p.m.
Am Mittwoch, 23. April 2008 01:20 schrieb Duncan Coutts:
[…]
Surely there was a justification to having $ be the opposite associativity from application and not just a different precedence. Does anyone know what it was?
Probably the fact that you can write
f $ g $ h $ u $ v $ w $ x
instead of
f (g (h (u (v (w x)))))
and thereby avoid building forests of parantheses.
Duncan
Best wishes, Wolfgang