19 Jul
2014
19 Jul
'14
9:52 a.m.
On 19 July 2014 22:15, Alexander Berntsen
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On 19/07/14 13:44, Ivan Lazar Miljenovic wrote:
equating p x y = (p x) == (p y) How is this any different from the original proposed solution? I'm not sure what you mean. Is it not obvious? The original proposal is defined in terms of on. Mine is not.
I meant more along the lines of why is this any better than using on. -- Ivan Lazar Miljenovic Ivan.Miljenovic@gmail.com http://IvanMiljenovic.wordpress.com